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- Show that the function f : R∗ ∗∗ → R∗ ∗∗ defined by f(x) = 1 x is one-one and onto, where R∗ is the set of all non-zero real numbers. Is the result true, if the domain R∗ ∗∗ is replaced by N with co-domain being same as R∗ ∗∗ ?
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